SOAL TRY OUT BAHASA
INGGRIS SMK NEGERI 45 JAKARTA
TAHUN PELAJARAN 2019/2020
A. LISTENING SECTION
In this section of the test you will have
the chance to show how well you understand spoken English. There are four
parts to this section with special directions for each part.
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PART I. Directions: There
are three items in this part. For each item, you will see a picture on your
test paper and you will hear four short statements. The statements will be
spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must
listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. When you hear the four
statements, look at the picture on your test paper and choose the statement
that best describes what you see in the picture. Then, on your answer sheet,
find the number of the question and mark your answer.
Look at the sample
below. Now listen to the four statements:
Sample Answer :
Statement (B), “The screen is on the wall”, best describes what you see in the picture. Therefore, you should mark (B) on your answer sheet.
Statement (B), “The screen is on the wall”, best describes what you see in the picture. Therefore, you should mark (B) on your answer sheet.
| Now let’s begin with the picture marked number one (1) on your test paper. |
No. 1 
No. 2
No. 3
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PART II.
Directions: There are four items in this part of the test.
For each item, you will hear a question or statement spoken in English followed
by three responses, also spoken in English. They will be spoken TWICE.
They will not be printed on your test paper, so you must listen carefully to
understand what the speakers say. You
are to choose the best response to each question or statement and mark it on
your answer sheet.
Now listen to a sample question.
You will hear : Sample
Answer
You will also hear :
The best response to the
question, “Would you like a seat in the front row?” is choice (C), “Sure. That
would be better.” Therefore you should mark (C) on your answer sheet.
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| 4. Mark your answer on your answer sheet |
| 5. Mark your answer on your answer sheet |
7.
Mark your answer on your answer sheet
PART III. Directions: There are four items in this part of the
test. For each item you will hear a short conversation between two people. You
will hear the conversations TWICE. They will not be printed on your test
paper, so you must listen carefully to understand what the speakers say. On your
test paper, you will read a question about each conversation. The question will
be followed by four answers. You are to choose the best answer to each question
and mark it on your answer sheet.
Now, let’s begin
with question number seven (8) on your test paper.
8. What
is mainly being discussed?
A.
The
position of the tables.
B.
The
work schedule.
C.
The new
waitress.
D.
The new
menu.
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10. What can be infered about the man?
A.
He
learnt to find the job easily.
B.
He
doesn’t like working overtime.
C.
He is hard-working
and adjustable.
D.
He can
work faster than his friends.
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9. How did the woman break her leg?
A. She slipped off a diving board.
B. She fell on the tennis court.
C. She had a skiing accident.
D. She was in a car wreck.
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11. What will the woman probably do next?
A.
Type more correspondence.
B.
Take the afternoon off.
C.
Clean the office.
D.
Mail the letters.
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PART IV. Directions: In this part of the test you will hear two
short talks. Each will be spoken TWICE. They will not be printed on your
test paper, so you must listen carefully to understand and remember what is
said. On your test paper, you will read two or more questions about each short
talk. Each question will be followed by four answers. You have to choose the
best answer to each question and mark it on your answer sheet.
Now let’s begin
with the following short talk.
12. Who is probably
giving the announcement?
A.
The
company personnel
B.
A regular passenger
C.
A flight attendant
D.
The bus
driver
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14. Where would
this announcement most likely be heard?
A.
At a
birthday party
B.
At a
fitness club
C.
At a
cafeteria
D.
At a
concert
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13. Why is bus 234 late?
A.
It is
stuck in heavy traffic.
B.
It was
involved in an accident.
C.
It is
having mechanical problem.
D.
It is
coming through bad weather.
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15. What should
listeners do if they want a body-fat test?
A.
Go to
the trainer's desk.
B.
Sign up
at the front desk.
C.
Send a
check with the fee.
D.
Design
a workout program.
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B. READING SECTION
In this part of
the test you will have the chance to show how well you understand written
English. There are four parts to this section, with special directions for
each part.
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PART V. Directions: From
questions 16 – 24, four clauses/sentences, marked (A), (B), (C), or (D), are
given beneath each incomplete dialog. Choose the one clause/sentence that best
completes the dialog. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and mark your answer.
16. Fathur : I need to buy a
birthday gift for my wife. Do you have recommendations?
Intan :
... You can come to Brian Diamonds. They provide so many models with the
highest quality.
A. What about giving her a ring?
B. Why don’t you sell the necklace?
C. Let’s provide her with the latest fashions.
D. I think you should exchange your bracelets.
17. Andra : So, have you got a plan this Saturday
night?
Rifda : If I finish my deadline, ....
Andra : Why don’t you try ScottBuffet
somewhere downtown? The taste is very good.
A. I’m going to accompany my mother to the mall
B. I’ll cook some meals for a family gathering
C. I’ll just be at home and enjoy some music
D. I’m going out for dinner with my family
18. Fenny : Lezza Catering. How may I help you?
Aldiron :
We’re having a company party next Monday, and ...
Fenny :
OK. How many people do you expect to entertain?
A. I need to arrange for all the food and drinks.
B. I have to cancel the meeting for the party.
C. I’d like to invite about 100 employees.
D. I want to reserve some tables for you.
19. Nury :
How can I help you sir?
Fadel : ... You see, it doesn’t work
properly.
Nury : Terribly sorry about
that. If you have your receipt, you can exchange it for any model of equal value.
A. Why don’t you return that mobile phone?
B. Do you have the best type of mobile phone?
C. I’d like to buy a new model of mobile phone.
D. I’m afraid I need to return this mobile phone.
20. Anne : Raihan is going to
celebrate her graduation next Saturday at 8.00 p.m.
Catty :
Yes, I’ve got the invitation, too.
Anne :
And will
you come along with me? I’ll
pick you up at 7. OK?
Catty : … Thank you. I’ll be looking forward to
it.
A. I’d
love to, but I have an appointment with the doctor.
B. Sure, it will be more
interesting to get there with you.
C. Sorry,
I’ve got to see my client at the same time.
D. OK.
I will call you as soon as possible.
21. Joko :
What about an ice cream?
Tino : …! It’s minus 10 outside.
A.
You must be joking
B.
I couldn’t agree more
C.
You shouldn’t pay for it
D.
I like your wonderful idea
22. Jeremy : An
important meeting will be held next month. Will you be there?
Jihan : Of course. …?
Jeremy : The problem of drugs in our community.
A.
What problem did you talk about
B.
What subject will be discussed
C.
What are you going to deliver
D.
What idea has been decided
23. Torry :
It’s Friday! What are you going to do this weekend?
Cam : A friend is going to visit me. I
think …
Torry : Nice! Will you go to that American
restaurant?
A.
I will take her around the city.
B.
We will have dinner together.
C.
I will meet her at the airport.
D.
We will do some shopping.
24. Anita : I went to the USA last year. I
visited LA and Chicago. How about you?
Maya :
Yes. ...
Anita : Did you like it?
A.
You were there two times.
B.
You have
never gone there.
C.
I was
there a few years ago.
D.
I really
liked LA and Chicago.
PART VI. Directions:
Questions 25 – 32 are based on a selection of text dialogs. Choose the
one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Answer all the
questions following each text dialog on the basis of what is stated or implied
in the selection. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question
and mark your answer.
Questions 25 – 27 are based
on the following text dialogue.
Mario : Hi Jane. Do we have enough participants for the research panel yet?
Jane : No, we need three more. We're looking through our data base and
phoning people who meet the criteria. But
so far either they don't
qualify or aren't available to participate
for two hours. We need one
low-income woman, one middle-class
business man, and one
high-income home owner of either gender.
Mario : How about posting an online advertisement? That usually attracts lots
of responses.
Jane : Yes. If we haven't found three more participants by noon, I'll do
that. We should have the panel filled by this evening.
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25. Why does Mario give suggestion to Jane?
A. Jane still needs more participants.
B. He will help Jane to post an ad.
C. Jane has a problem with him.
D. He lets Jane to fill the panel.
26. What will Jane do next? She ….
A. is waiting for the participants needed
B. will participate in the research panel
C. will post the advertisement soon
D. asks Mario to meet people
27. “We should have the panel filled …” (last line)
The underlined word means ….
A. cleared
B. opened
C. registered
D. completed
Questions 28 – 30 are based
on the following text dialogue.
Andy :
Hey Teresa, how are you going?
Teresa :
Not bad, Andy. How are you?
Andy :
Going well thanks. What have you been up to lately?
Teresa :
I’ve just been flat out with work. We’ve had so much to sort out
with our
accounts department.
Today was crazy though because I missed my alarm and slept in!
Andy :
Oh no! What time do you usually have to get up?
Teresa :
Usually around 5.30am because it takes me an hour to get to work on the
train.
Andy :
Gee that’s early! I don’t usually get up until 7.30 am and then I just
throw on my clothes, grab some toast and shoot off.
Teresa :
Ahh. I can’t do that. I like to take my time in the morning to get ready. I
always plan to have a big breakfast and cup of tea
but I usually just run out of time and end up grabbing a
coffee and croissant on the way to work.
Andy :Yeah,
me too!
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28. What are they
mostly talking about?
A.
Weekend activities
B.
Morning routines
C.
Projects at work
D.
Office duties
29. From the text we
can conclude that Teresa’s house is ....
A.
near from the office
B.
quite far from the office
C.
10 minute walk to the office
D.
cannot be reached from the office
30. “... flat out
with work ...” (line 4)
The underlined phrase means
....
A.
unemployed
B.
simple
C.
happy
D.
busy
Questions 31 – 32 are based on the following text
dialogue.
Harry :
Hi Kim… Do you know about our subjects this new semester?
Kim :
On Monday we’ll get Phonetics and Phonemics.
Harry :
Really? Who is going to teach us?
Kim :
Don’t you know, Harry? We will be taught by Mr Hutchinson who is the grumpiest lecture in this college and if
he gives us assignments, it must be turned in two days before the class.
Harry :
Wow, you really scare me.
Kim :
Not just about that. You know what. We’ll be asked to make a presentation related to his explanation. Sounds creepy
huh?
Harry :
Just take the positive sides. It will be so much fun with grouping method
thus we can share
our opinions and ideas.
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31.What is being
discussed in the dialogue?
A.
School
assignments
B.
Class
presentations
C.
College
subjects
D.
One of
lecturers
32. From the dialogue we can conclude that ....
A.
Kim likes
doing presentation in Mr.Hutcinson’s class
B.
Harry is
scared with the subject that he will have
C.
Harry has
better attitude about Mr Hutchinson
D.
Kim
doesn’t like going to college with Harry
PART VII. Directions: Questions
33 – 50 are based on a selection of reading materials, such as notices,
letters, forms, articles, advertisements, etc. Choose the one best answer, (A),
(B), (C), or (D), to each question. Answer all the questions following each
reading selection on the basis of what is stated or implied in the selection.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and mark your
answer.
Questions 33 – 35 are based on the following text.
A
grizzly bear killed a 57-year-old man hiking in Yellowstone National Park
with his wife Wednesday. It’s the first fatal bear mauling in the park
since 1986.
The
bears involved in Wednesday’s encounter have not been captured, and park
officials said they did not immediately have enough information to
determine what measures, if any, they might take in the aftermath of the
attack.
According
to the AP, Yellowstone National Park is home to at least 600 grizzly bears,
though some say the population is over 1,000. While the attack is the first
fatal mauling in the park since 1986, it’s the third in the region in
little over a year.
A
National Park Service statement said the couple surprised the mother
grizzly while with her cubs, and that the grizzly fatally mauled the man in
“an attempt to defend a perceived threat to her cubs.”
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33. What does the
text mainly concern?
A.
The
world’s most dangerous bear
B.
The
incident causing someone’s death
C.
The
couple’s hiking activities in the park
D.
The first
fatal mauling happened to a bear
34. According to the
text, the park officials ....
A.
seized at
least 600 grizzly bears over a year
B.
hadn’t
decided any measures after the attack
C.
had
sufficient information to capture the bears
D.
said that
the attack was the first one in the region
35. We can infer from
the text that the mother bear ....
A.
tried to
protect her family
B.
surprised
the couple in the park
C.
was
amazed of the park’s beauty
D.
struck
one of the park service men
How to cook with a microwave oven? Here
are the steps:
1. Wash your hands. Remember to be clean before cooking.
2. Then connect to the electrical supply.
3. After that, put the food into the microwave.
4. Don’t forget to decide how long it will heat the food.
5. Press the button to start heating the food.
6. Wait for the beep sound. It indicates the cooking process is done.
7. Finally, take out the food and enjoy it.
8. Don’t forget to wash hands after cleaning the working area.
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36. Who most likely makes
use of this instruction?
A.
A
saleswoman on a promotion
B.
A
technician in a factory
C.
A chef in
a restaurant
D.
A mother
at home
37. What should you
do after cleaning your hands before cooking?
A.
Press the start button
B.
Wash the microwave
C.
Plug in the device supply
D.
Put the food into the oven
38. “It
indicates the cooking ....” (step 6)
What does the underlined word refer to?
A.
The food
B.
The sound
C.
The button
D.
The process
Questions
39 – 41 are based on the following text.
Dubai may be an international playground for global superstars, but
no one can eclipse the biggest star of all, the Burj Khalifa.
Located in thriving downtown Dubai, the needle-shaped super scraper
takes center stage in the famed skyline with millions of visitors and VIPs
flocking each year to arguably the most prestigious address in the world.
The tallest man-made structure is the ultimate symbol of glitz,
glamor and the over-the-top excess for which the city is known.
Soaring over the city at an impressive 2,716 feet (828 meters) and
boasting 200 stories (160 habitable), the $1.5 billion Burj Khalifa
project was unveiled by Dubai's ruler Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid Al Maktoum
in January 2010.
At the peak of construction, more than 12,000 international workers
were on site per day logging a collective 22 million man-hours during the
six years it took to complete.
The Burj Khalifa is twice the height of New York's Empire State
Building and three times as tall as the Eiffel Tower in Paris.
It even
surpassed Taiwan's Taipei 101, which at 1,667 feet (508m) had held the
world title since it opened in 2004. Laid end to end, the Burj Khalifa's
pieces would stretch over a quarter of the way around the world.
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39. After reading the
text, the readers know ….
A. the workers who
completed the building
B. the most
prestigious building in Dubai
C. the fact that Dubai
is a nice country
D. the height of
buildings in Dubai
40. From the text we know that ….
A. the Burj Khalifa is
3 times the height of New York’s Empire state building
B. the tallest, most
glamour and prestigious building in Dubai is Burj Khalifa
C. Taiwan’s Taipei 101
stretches over a quarter of the way around the world
D. the owner of Burj
Khalifa in Dubai is Sheikh Mohammed bin Rashid
41. “… boosting 200 stories (160 habitable), … “ (paragraph 4).
The underlined word means ‘be
able to be ….’
A.
built
B.
filled
C.
repaired
D.
occupied
Ernst Ruska –
The Inventor of Electron Microscope
Although
electron microscope was patented by Reinhold Rudenberg in 1931, the
invention of the microscope which uses the electron beam rather than light
to produce an image is traditionally credited to the German physicist Ernst
Ruska. Ruska developed the first prototype of electron microscope together
with Max Knoll in 1931 and two years later, he (alone) built the first
electron microscope which gave a better resolution than the light
microscope. In 1986, Ruska was awarded the Nobel Prize for his work in the
field of electron optics as well as for construction of the first electron
microscope.
Ernst Ruska was
born on 25 December 1906 in Heidelberg, Germany to Professor Julius Ruska
and his wife Elizabeth. After grammar school in Heidelberg, he continued
education at the Technical College in Munich and later in Berlin where he
got involved with high voltage and vacuum technology. At the same time, he
worked on the development of high performance cathode ray oscilloscope with
Dr Max Knoll and other students. Soon, however, Ruska became interested in
electrons. His first scientific work in 1928-29 thus dealt with Hans
Busch’s electron lens. And while he was researching Busch’s discovery, he
realised that that an electron microscope with a 1,000 times shorter
wavelengths from the ordinary light microscope could be used to get a
better image with more details.
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42. What is the writer’s
intention to make the text?
A. To join the Nobel
prize in scientific
B. To know the patent
of the electron microscope
C. To inform the readers
about one of the scientists
D. To describe about
the electron of the microscope
43. What is the
important moment in the text?
A. Ruska was awarded the Nobel Prize for his work
in the field of electron optics
B. His first scientific work in 1931 dealt with
Hans Busch’s electron lens
C. Electron microscope was patented by Reinhold
Rudenberg in 1929
D. Ruska continued his
education at the Technical College in Berlin
44. What can we
imply to Ernst Ruska?
A. He always works
alone to get his achievement
B. He is talented,
persistent and fast learner
C. He is always
interested in a microscope
D. He dropped out from
his college
Whom It May Concern:
We would like
to inform you that MSM Group LLC by setting a Call Center will officially
use this new telephone number, as a main line: +976 7718 1111 to replace
all other current telephone numbers being in use, with effect from today in
order to improve the communication. The fax number remains unchanged as
11-342 175. Please, kindly update your contact information and we look
forward to serving you as usual with the new telephone number.
Taking this
opportunity, we would like to convey our best wishes & sincere thanks
to the support that you have so generously bestowed upon our company over
the years. We remain sincerely yours in providing you with reliable
services in pursuit of building a mutually prosperous business
relationship.
Sincerely,
MSM Group LLC
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45. Where can you find the announcement?
A. At the police
station
B. At the Call Center
C. At the library
D. At the office
46. Paragraph 1 talks about …
A. the replacement of the
new phone number
B. the information of
the current number
C. the gratitude to
the customers
D. the change of the
fax number
47. What can be implied
about the text?
A. To know the new
number, contact the Call Center.
B. The main line is to
enhance the communication.
C. To serve the
customers, provide new phones.
D. The update
infoation is very important.
Ahmad Zaky
Makarim
123 Any Street
Anytown, CT 11112 • 555-124-1245 • ahmadzk.applicant@gmail.com
September 1,
2018
Abdulah
As-Sudais
Volunteer
Manager
All
Humanitarian Center
123 Business
Rd.
Business City,
NY 54321
Dear Mr. Lee,
I am interested
in opportunities that may be available to volunteer at the All Humanitarian
Center. As a long-time advocate of the needs and welfare of the
elderly in our community, I have experience working with senior citizens
and would be thrilled to continue to do so in a volunteer capacity.
I volunteered
as an aide at the Champlain Center and enjoyed being able to help senior citizens
with arts and crafts. In this position, I assisted program participants
with recreational projects, contributed to program planning and strategy
sessions, and accompanied group field trips to local musical events and
museums. I also participated in fundraising and community outreach
initiatives.
If the All
Humanitarian Center needs a dedicated volunteer, I would be thrilled to
have the opportunity to assist you. My schedule is flexible, and I would be
available to volunteer at your convenience.
Eager to learn
more about your mission, successes, and challenges in serving our senior
citizens, I would be grateful for the opportunity to interview with you at
a mutually convenient time. I look forward to speaking with you.
Thank you for
your consideration.
Sincerely,
Ahmad Zaki
Makarim
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48. Why does Makarim
write the letter?
A. To be a volunteer
at Champlain Center
. B. To be accepted at
All Humanian Center
C. To help senior
citizens at Champlain Center
D. To assist All
Humanian Center in interviewing
49. What is the strong
point that Makarim has?
A. He has experience
related to the position needed.
B. He manages his time
well with senior citizens.
C. He likes to work at
Champlain Center.
D. He is very good in
art and craft.
50. “As a long-time advocate of the needs …” (the 2nd
sentence).
The underlined word means ….
A. participant
B. supporter
C. provider
D. critic
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